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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old white male visits his daughter's church in the USA and undergoes a health screening. He has a carotid Doppler study, ultrasonography, heel densitometry, and a multiphasic blood panel. The report indicates that all of the studies are normal, but a 0.7-cm cystic thyroid nodule was noted. The TSH level is also normal. He comes to see you and brings the report.Upon examination, his neck and ENT examination are both normal, and you do not detect a nodule. His past medical history and family history are unremarkable.What would you recommend?
Your Answer: T3, T4, and calcitonin levels
Correct Answer: Repeat ultrasonography in 6-12 months
Explanation:Nonpalpable thyroid nodules are commonly found on sonograms, with a low risk of malignancy (<5%). These nodules do not require biopsy and further thyroid studies are not necessary if the TSH level is normal. Therefore, small purely cystic thyroid nodules can be safely managed without biopsy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Surgery
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old smoker presents to the outpatient clinic with progressively worsening dyspnea for 6 months and severe leg pain of 2 months duration. He works in a tobacco factory for 10 years. He is a known hypertensive, currently taking a low dose thiazide-type diuretic for it. There is no other history of chest pain or peripheral edema.O/E- Patient is vitally stable with BP 130/80 mmHg, pulse 76 bpm, temperature 37°C, and respiratory rate of around 15 per minute. General physical examination reveals clubbing and lung auscultation reveals diffuse crept on both lung fields. Chest X-ray reveals an opacity in the middle lobe of the lung around 3×3cm in size and reticulonodular opacities over whole lung fields bilaterally.Lab investigation shows all cell lines in the normal range with a hematocrit of 45%. Serum ANCA, ANA, RF factor all came out negative.Lung biopsy reveals malignant cells consistent with small cell carcinoma of the lungs. Multiple bony metastases were evident on the bone scan.Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding the patient's pain management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Opioids are mainstay of therapy but are generally avoided as patients become addicted to morphine
Explanation:Cancer patients frequently face side effects as a result of their treatment (nausea, vomiting, anemia, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, gastrointestinal effects, pain, depression, tumor lysis syndrome). Controlling these consequences increases one’s quality of life.Pain should be anticipated and dealt with aggressively. When compared to single drug classes, numerous drug classes may give superior pain control with fewer or less severe side effects. Opioids are the mainstay of treatment, administered 24 hours a day in typically effective levels, with additional doses administered for severe pain on rare occasions.Fentanyl is delivered transdermally if the oral route is not accessible.In patients with thrombocytopenia, NSAIDs should be avoided.→ Gabapentin can be used to alleviate neuropathic pain. A tricyclic antidepressant (e.g., nortriptyline) is another option.Non Pharmaceutical pain treatments include focused radiation therapy, nerve blocking, and surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Oncology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 13-year-old boy presents to the Emergency Department with a chief complaint of pain and swelling at the left mid-femur area for 15 days. He also has had on/off a low-grade fever for 1 month. Her mother thinks he has also lost some weight. You perform an X-ray and noticed a bizarre periosteal reaction, which the radiologists describe as onion skinning. Biopsy was performed and relieved small, round blue cells. Which of the following is most likely the diagnosis for this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ewing sarcoma
Explanation:Based on the history and clinical examination, this is the case of Ewing sarcoma. It is the second most common malignant bone tumor (after osteosarcoma). It tends to peak between 10-20 years of age. Symptoms typically include pain and swelling, usually involving the midshaft of long bones, flat bones of the ribs and pelvis. Constitutional symptoms or signs, such as fever, fatigue, weight loss, or anemia, are present in about 10 to 20 percent of patients at presentation. Radiograph studies have typical features of multiple layers of periosteum around the tumor site described as an onion-skinning pattern.- Osteosarcoma does not typically present with systemic symptoms and radiographs typically show a sunburst pattern (soft tissue mass with radial calcifications).- Osteoid osteoma on plain radiographs, osteoid osteoma appears as a small, round lucency (nidus) with a sclerotic margin.- In Chondroblastoma small, well-defined lesions with a sclerotic border that may cross the physis (growth plate) is seen on plain X-ray.- Nonossifying fibroma appears as small, well-defined, eccentric, expansile, lytic lesions located in the metaphysis with scalloped sclerotic borders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopedics
- Pediatrics
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 64-year-old male who is otherwise healthy has been hospitalized for 2 days with community-acquired pneumonia. He has remained bedridden. You are reviewing him on ward rounds and he mentions that he has noticed increased swelling and pain in his left lower extremity. An ultrasound of the lower extremity shows a deep venous thrombosis (DVT) in his calf but he has no prior history of blood clots.The best management of this patient’s DVT is which of the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Heparin therapy followed by oral anticoagulation for 3 months
Explanation:Heparin therapy followed by oral anticoagulation for 3 months is the correct answer. Patients with an uncomplicated calf deep vein thrombosis (DVT) have a significant risk of further clot extension without anticoagulation, and this may result in acute pulmonary embolism or recurrence of the thrombus. There is also a risk of late complications such as the post-thrombotic syndrome or chronic thromboembolic hypertension. Therefore, repeat ultrasonography to monitor a DVT by is not a good option unless there are contraindications to anticoagulation like active bleeding, recent surgery, hemorrhagic stroke, or heparin-induced thrombocytopenia.The treatment that is recommended for DVT is heparin which can be intravenous unfractionated or subcutaneous low molecular weight. This is followed by oral anticoagulation with warfarin once a therapeutic INR is achieved. A first episode of DVT due to an idiopathic cause or transient risk factor, such as short-term immobilization, should be treated for 3-6 months. The benefit-to-risk ratio declines after 6 months except if the patient has a recurrent DVT or a known chronic risk factor, like a thrombophilic condition or cancer.For patients with life-threatening pulmonary embolism, thrombolytic therapy with intravenous tissue plasminogen activator (tPA), urokinase, or streptokinase is used. Inferior vena cava filters are used in patients who have a contraindication to anticoagulant therapy, recurrent venous thromboembolism despite adequate anticoagulation, or such limited pulmonary vascular reserve that survival of additional thromboemboli is doubtful.Heparin therapy followed by oral anticoagulation for 3 months
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
- Medicine
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old male has been experiencing a sore throat, hoarseness, fever of 39°C (102.2°F), and cough for the past three days. On examination, there is no evidence of tonsillar exudates, lymphadenopathy, or abnormal breath sounds. What would be the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Recommend symptomatic treatment
Explanation:– Common cause of pharyngitis is viral- Centor criteria/McIsaac decision rule used to diagnose streptococcal pharyngitis- Age plays a role in diagnosis- Modified criteria adds/subtracts points based on age- Symptomatic treatment recommended for this patient- Rapid antigen test and throat culture for streptococcal pharyngitis if patient has 2-3 points on Centor criteria/McIsaac decision rule- Treat empirically for streptococcal pharyngitis if Centor criteria/McIsaac score ≥ 4- Chest X-ray unnecessary for uncomplicated upper respiratory infection
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Otolaryngology
- Pediatrics
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 4-month-old baby presents with an erythematous, scaling, crusting eruption of the scalp, face and diaper area. It is greasy yellow in appearance. Seborrheic dermatitis is managed using all of the following,except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Erythromycin ointment
Explanation:Seborrhoeic dermatitis is a skin condition that primarily affects the scalp and skin folds of infants up to 12 months old. It is commonly referred to as cradle cap and is characterized by greasy, yellow plaques on the scalp. Treatment may include frequent shampooing with baby shampoo, applying an emollient to the scalp, and gentle scalp massage. If these measures are not effective, mild topical corticosteroids or antifungal shampoos may be prescribed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
- Pediatrics
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Question 7
Incorrect
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During your shift at your local hospital, you assess a 28-year-old G1P0 at 6 weeks gestation by her last menstrual period. She presents with LLQ pain for the last 2-3 days and mild spotting that began a few hours ago. The pain is increasingly worsening, dull, and she has never experienced anything similar before. Her vital signs are stable. Blood works in the ED confirms that she is pregnant. Her beta hCG value is lower than expected for six weeks of gestational age. An urgent pelvic ultrasound coupled with a transvaginal ultrasound show an empty uterus and a 3 cm mass in her left fallopian tube. There is no indication of fetal heart activity. After discussing further, the patient and her husband inform you that they have been trying to conceive for more than three years and they already had an appointment at the fertility clinic when she missed her period. A home pregnancy test turned positive. They are very scared of losing this pregnancy and not being able to conceive again. She is otherwise healthy, with no known medical conditions. She is not on any current medications. She has never smoked or consumed street drugs. She drinks a glass wine occasionally. The patient has never had a sexually transmitted disease and has had two sexual partners in her life. She used to take a birth control pill but has not used one in the last three years.What is her risk factor for the condition diagnosed above?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: History of infertility
Explanation:An ectopic pregnancy is characterized by implantation of the blastocyst outside the endometrium, but most commonly in the fallopian tube 95%, particularly in the ampulla 70%). Fewer tubal pregnancies occur in the isthmus 12% and fimbriae 11%. Rarely, it occurs in the cervix < 1%) or abdomen 1%, or on the ovary 3%. The incidence is 2% of all pregnancies. Some of the risk factors include: 1. The most well known risk factor is a previous ectopic pregnancy. 2. Acquired tubal damage from pelvic inflammatory disease3. Previous tubal surgery or congenital tubal dysfunction.4. Genital surgery, endometriosis, and dysmenorrhea are significant risk factors.5. Intrauterine contraceptives devices.6. Infertility.7. Smoking impairs immunity, predisposed to PID and results in impaired motility of the tubes.8. Women with mental health disorders such as anxiety, depression, somatoform disorder and adjustment disorder have increased rates of infertility, endometriosis, chronic pelvic pain, and recurrent miscarriages. It is possible that the drugs disrupt the transport of embryo through the fallopian tube. More research is needed in this.Infertility is either primary or secondary. Primary infertility is the inability of a couple to conceive after one year of unprotected sex. The couple tried to conceive for three years, hence the diagnosis of infertility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- OBGYN
- Obstetrics
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old male inquires about starting an exercise plan because of a family history of heart disease and hypertension. He is sedentary but has no medical issues at the moment.Which of the following recommendations would be most appropriate for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fast walking for 30 minutes 5 or more days per week
Explanation:Current guidelines recommend that healthy adults engage in 30 minutes of moderate-intensity physical activity on 5 or more days per week. Exercise would help the index patient prevent or delay the onset of heart disease and hypertension, as well as manage his weight. Baseline EKG and rhythm strip did not respond to the patient’s question about starting an exercise program and is therefore not correct.Exercise stress testing is not indicated for this patient Sedentary patients should start light-intensity exercise programs. Jogging for 30 minutes every other day and weight training once weekly are not correct.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- PMCH
- Public Health
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old male presented to the medical clinic with a rash on his legs that has been present for 2 days already. Upon history-taking and interview, the patient believed that the rash has started to spread on his back as well. He described the lesions to be itchy but painless. The patient denied any fever, nausea, and fatigue. It was revealed that he is an immigrant from Papua New Guinea and he lives with his girlfriend who also has similar lesions that manifested a week ago. Upon physical examination, the lesions were described to be flesh-colored, smooth, and dome-shaped. Which of the following is most likely considered to be the diagnosis of the patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Molluscum contagiosum
Explanation:Molluscum contagiosum, also called water warts, is a benign condition of the skin. The skin lesions of molluscum contagiosum are called mollusca. The typical lesion appears dome-shaped, round, and pinkish-purple in color.A double-stranded DNA poxvirus called molluscum contagiosum virus (MCV) causes molluscum contagiosum. Molluscum contagiosum lesions are transmitted by direct skin-to-skin (including sexual) or indirect (towels, underclothes, toys, razor, tattoo supplies) contact. Molluscum contagiosum may also disseminate by autoinoculation to normal skin after mollusca scraping by the patients. Transmission from sharing swimming pools and other wet environments is possible but not fully proven. In utero and prepartum transmissions are occasionally reported, resulting in congenital molluscum contagiosum or skin lesions developing during the early months of life.Molluscum contagiosum causes mainly cosmetic concerns. Mollusca is usually asymptomatic but may be painful or itchy. The diagnosis of molluscum contagiosum is based on clinical examination. Lesions are firm, white to flesh-colored, dome-shaped, pearly papules, having a central umbilication from which one can express a cheesy material. Mollusca is usually one millimeter to one centimeter in diameter.In children, mollusca are located on the face, trunk, limbs, and axillary areas. Palms and soles are not involved. In sexually transmitted forms, lesions are mainly observed in the anogenital area, abdomen, and inner thighs. The treatment depends on the patient’s (or their parent’s) preferences. Because the condition is usually self-limiting, awaiting spontaneous resolution should be considered. However, the patients should be aware that the resolution of molluscum contagiosum may take several months. Even though many treatments had been proposed for molluscum contagiosum, none has proven its effectiveness. Current treatment options include physical removal of mollusca, topical medications, and systemic treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
- Medicine
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 77-year-old female presents with complaints of intense right-sided headache and blurry vision. She states that this pounding pain began abruptly and rates it as 8/10. It is constant but does not spread. She denies light sensitivity but has jaw rigidity when she attempts to open her mouth, and feels fatigued.Physical examination reveals tenderness on the right side of the patient’s head. Restriction of jaw movement is confirmed. Labs reveal highly elevated ESR. Which of the following would confirm the patient’s most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Temporal artery biopsy
Explanation:Temporal arteritis is a form of systemic vasculitis that typically affects the superficial temporal arteries, but may also affect ophthalmic, occipital, vertebral, posterior ciliary, and proximal vertebral arteries. It is the most common form of systemic vasculitis in adults and can involve medium and large vessels, including the aorta and the carotid, subclavian, and iliac arteries. Symptoms include severe throbbing headache located only on the right side, accompanied by blurry vision, jaw claudication, and elevated ESR. If left untreated, it can lead to blindness or death from myocardial infarction, stroke, or dissecting aortic aneurysm. Diagnosis and treatment should be made as early as possible to prevent blindness. Treatment typically involves high dose corticosteroids, with temporal artery biopsy performed within 1 week.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
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