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  • Question 1 - A 36-year-old G1P1 just delivered a male baby via vaginal delivery at 36...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old G1P1 just delivered a male baby via vaginal delivery at 36 weeks and 5 days of gestation. APGARs were 8 and 9 (at 1 and 5 minutes after birth, respectively). However, the infant is exhibiting tachypnea with respiratory rates of 70 bpm and a normal oxygen saturation of 98%. He has mild acrocyanosis with prominent nasal flaring and intercostal retractions. There is no temperature instability present.The pregnancy was complicated by gestational diabetes which did not require any medications. The mother's past medical history was unremarkable and she only took prenatal vitamins throughout the pregnancy. Group B streptococcus status was negative and there was no alcohol, drug or tobacco use.Assuming the most likely diagnosis, what is the next step in the management of this case?

      Your Answer: Supportive management, including supplemental oxygen if needed

      Explanation:

      – Transient tachypnea of the newborn (TTN) is a common cause of respiratory distress in newborns.- It is characterized by tachypnea with the respiratory rate being above 60 breaths per minute, cyanosis and increased work of breathing.- It usually resolves within 24 hours but may persist up to 72 hours.- Treatment is supportive with nutrition, good temperature control and supplemental oxygen if needed.- Intubation is not necessary unless a different disease process is underlying.- Diuretics have not been proven effective when treating TTN.- Fluid restriction may be considered in severe cases of TTN where respiratory support was needed for longer than 48 hours.- IV fluid hydration may be considered with high respiratory rates or when increased work of breathing prohibits oral feeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      • Pediatrics
      40.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 52-year-old male presented to the outpatient clinic with complaints of headaches, low...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old male presented to the outpatient clinic with complaints of headaches, low back pain, and left hip pain, which began over the past eight months. He also mentioned that his favourite hat is becoming tighter. His medical and family histories are unremarkable.On physical examination, his findings were unremarkable. His skull X-ray revealed a cotton wool appearance, and his pelvis X-ray showed thickening of the cortex, accentuation of the trabecular pattern, and increased density of the bone. A blood sample was sent to the laboratory.What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Osteitis fibrosa cystica

      Correct Answer: Paget disease of bone

      Explanation:

      – Paget disease of bone is a bone remodelling disorder with excessive bone resorption followed by an increase in bone formation- It is the second most common metabolic bone disorder after osteoporosis- Symptoms include bone and/or joint pain, bone deformity, hearing loss, nerve root compression, spinal stenosis, pathologic fractures, secondary osteoarthritis, osteosarcoma, and high-output heart failure- Radiographs are usually diagnostic, showing the characteristic deformity of bone, with cortical thickening marked by tunnelling, and coarsened trabeculae

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      46.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 17-year-old Caucasian female with asthma presented to the children's emergency with severe,...

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old Caucasian female with asthma presented to the children's emergency with severe, acute exacerbation of her chronic bronchial asthma. She was discharged home on a combination of inhalers and oral prednisolone 40 mg po od.She presents to the dermatology clinic two weeks after discharge with complaints of sudden rash on her back and chest. Physical examination reveals she has erythematous pustules and comedones over her face in various stages of healing. She also has erythematous pustules over her upper back and chest which are all of the same size and shape as each other. However, they do not itch. These new symptoms are most likely what?

      Your Answer: Steroid-induced acne

      Explanation:

      This patient has a history of prednisolone intake (steroid). The most likely diagnosis is steroid-induced acne. It has a sudden onset and patients will give a history of use of steroid medications. The lesions will appear monomorphic (at the same stage of development). The usual areas of involvement are the upper trunk. Pityriasis rosea is an acute self-limiting disorder affecting young adults and teens. Lesions have a characteristic pattern and shape, described as thin oval plaques, often with a central scale, and a characteristic herald patch. This is not what is seen on this patient’s physical examination. Acne vulgaris – while the patient does have findings that are suggestive of acne vulgaris on her face, these lesions include comedones and are described as being in various stages of healing. However, the new symptoms of rash are of sudden onset and the question asks the most likely diagnosis of the new symptoms. Varicella – this rash is characterized by 2-3 successive crops of diffuse, pruritic vesicles or papules over several days. These lesions evolve into pustules and crusted erosions so that various stages of development are present together. Acne rosacea – a chronic skin disease that usually affects persons aged 30-50 years. The course is chronic with remissions and relapses. It most commonly affects the face and is characterized by flushing and telangiectasias. This does not describe the findings here. Note: Steroid-induced acne has an explosive onset and tends to involve the upper trunk. Patients present with acneiform lesions that are all at the same stage of development and history of topical or oral steroid use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      • Medicine
      71.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - a 63-year old lady with moderate COPD has presented to the emergency room...

    Correct

    • a 63-year old lady with moderate COPD has presented to the emergency room with ongoing dyspnea even though she is being treated with both an inhaled long-acting Beta-agonist and a long-acting anticholinergic agent. Examination reveals an oxygen saturation of 88% and a PaO2 of 55 mmHg. Her echocardiography shows a normal ejection fraction but there is moderate pulmonary hypertension.The most appropriate intervention at this time will be which of the following?

      Your Answer: Supplemental oxygen

      Explanation:

      One of the criteria for use of supplemental oxygen is hypoxia, which this patient with moderate COPD and moderate non pulmonary arterial hypertension pulmonary hypertension has. Sildenafil and nifedipine are utilized in pulmonary arterial hypertension. However there is little evidence to support their use in pulmonary hypertension associated with chronic lung disease and/or hypoxemia.Low-dose prednisone may be a possible option in the future.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pulmonology
      45.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 70-year-old male presented to the emergency department and was admitted for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old male presented to the emergency department and was admitted for the treatment of COPD exacerbation. It was noted that the patient's condition deteriorated after 8 hours. The patient became drowsy and almost not arousable. With the patient's clinical presentation, a diagnosis of hypercapnic respiratory failure and carbon dioxide narcosis was made. Absorption atelectasis was also suspected as an underlying condition. Which of the following is most likely considered to be a characteristic of this condition?

      Your Answer: Hypoxia- related alveolar collapse

      Correct Answer: Nitrogen washout-associated alveolar collapse

      Explanation:

      In type 2 (hypercapnic) respiratory failure, the PaCO2 is greater than 50 mmHg, and PaO2 may be normal or, in the event of respiratory pump failure, low.Symptoms and signs of hypercapnia:- Headache- Change of behavior- Coma- Asterixis- Papilloedema- Warm extremitiesCarbon dioxide (CO2) narcosis is a condition that develops when excessive CO2 is present in the bloodstream, leading to a depressed level of consciousness. This condition largely results from lung disease, hypoventilation, or environmental exposure. Hypercapnia, a state of elevated serum carbon dioxide (CO2), can manifest as a broad spectrum of disease, the most severe of which is CO2 narcosis. The delineating feature of CO2 narcosis is a depressed level of consciousness. It is essential to recognize impending or current CO2 narcosis.Adults with COPD have extensive collateral ventilation secondary to airway destruction and thus are less likely to develop resorption atelectasis in the presence of an obstructing lesion (i.e., intrathoracic tumor). The use of high inspiratory oxygen concentration (high FiO2) during induction and maintenance of general anesthesia also contributes to atelectasis via absorption atelectasis. Room air is 79% nitrogen| nitrogen is slowly absorbed into the blood and therefore helps maintain alveolar patency. In contrast, oxygen is rapidly absorbed into the blood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pulmonology
      61.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A rural community college has requested your guidance in offering a preventive health...

    Incorrect

    • A rural community college has requested your guidance in offering a preventive health program to its students.The most appropriate plan would include which one of the following?

      Your Answer: Mammograms for female students

      Correct Answer: Smoking cessation programs

      Explanation:

      Counseling on tobacco use and other substance abuse is recommended as part of all routine preventive care.- Mammograms are not recommended until age 50.- Lead screening is recommended for at-risk individuals between 6 months and 6 years of age.- Colorectal cancer screening for average-risk individuals is recommended at age 50.- The Preventive Services Task Force recommends a routine physical examination every 3-5 years for young adults until the age of 40.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • PMCH
      • Public Health
      42.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - An 8-year-old boy who was recently diagnosed with asthma was brought to the...

    Incorrect

    • An 8-year-old boy who was recently diagnosed with asthma was brought to the hospital with cough and severe shortness of breath. The cough started about five days ago and was dry but more severe at night. Breathlessness started early this morning but is gradually worsening. Since then he was sweating profusely. When he was diagnosed 3 months ago, he was started on a on a short-acting beta agonist (SABA) on per-need basis. For the last week, there were 3 occasions at night that he woke up and had to use his SABA. His peak expiratory flow (PEF) was measured two days ago and was 55% of his personal best.On examination, he looked agitated and breathless and was only speaking in short phrases. There was noticeable cyanosis but he was not pale or jaundiced. His respiratory rate was 35 bpm, heart rate 128 bpm but his blood pressure and body temperature were normal. On auscultation of his chest, there were loud expiratory wheezes heard throughout all lung fields both anteriorly and posteriorly.Lab results show normal hemoglobin concentration.The following tests were done before administering oxygen therapy, and yielded the following results:Normal vital capacity,PEF 45% of personal best|PaO2 48 mmHg,PaCO2 43 mmHg,Bicarbonate 22 mmol/L andpH = 7.35.Treatment administered included supplemental oxygen, inhaled beta-agonist therapy every 20 min and systemic corticosteroids. Pulse oximetry values started to increase. Using your knowledge about the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve, you wanted to estimate the PaO2 from % saturation . However, you must be cautious in doing this because the sensitivity of pulse oximetry is not uniform throughout the PO2 range in arterial blood.There was initial improvement but then the patient started to deteriorate and capnography was instituted as an additional monitoring aid. An hour later, there is a large discrepancy between PaCO2(47 mmHg) and end-tidal PCO2(40 mmHg).This may be the result if the patient was:

      Your Answer: Had a decrease in dead space by redirecting blood flow from alveoli with low ventilation to those with high ventilation.

      Correct Answer: Was severely dehydrated

      Explanation:

      Hypoxia can be caused by disorders of the respiratory and/or cardiovascular system or blood and there are different types. 1. Hypoxic hypoxia – there is a reduction in PaO2 and as a result, there is consequent reduction in % saturation and oxygen concentration in blood. Cyanosis is a known sign of this form of hypoxia. 2. Anemic hypoxia – PaO2and % saturation are normal, but the blood oxygen concentration is low as a result of the low oxygen carrying capacity of blood. Because the % saturation of hemoglobin is normal in anemic hypoxia, there is no cyanosis.3. Stagnant hypoxia – all oxygen parameters in arterial blood are normal, but there is low tissue perfusion which impairs the delivery of oxygen to tissues. Sluggish circulation might lead to peripheral cyanosis. 4. Histotoxic hypoxia – oxygen parameters and tissue perfusion are normal, but the tissue cannot extract oxygen from the blood, and cyanosis is not a feature.Blood volume and cardiac output drops with dehydration, and so, severe dehydration is the correct answer. There is low cardiac output and pulmonary blood flow is reduced. Carbon dioxide elimination is sometimes impaired. In this situation, a high discrepancy between PaO2 and end-tidal PCO2(from capnography) may develop.In hypoventilation, whatever air ventilates the lung eliminates CO2and the discrepancy between PaO2 and end-tidal PCO2(from capnography) is not usually high.In anemia, carbon dioxide elimination is unaffected. Most CO2in blood is transported as bicarbonate and is not bound to hemoglobin.High cardiac output leads to increased pulmonary blood flow and improves CO2 elimination. Discrepancy between PaO2 and end-tidal PCO2(from capnography) would be reduced.Increases in dead space lead to decreases in end-tidal PCO2 as the air coming from over ventilated alveoli would have low PCO2 as this air did not equilibrate with blood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Internal Medicine
      • Pediatrics
      134.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 17-year-old male asthmatic with no other medical problems presents with a severe...

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old male asthmatic with no other medical problems presents with a severe attack of respiratory distress and a peak expiratory flow rate <40%. After 1 hour of acute treatment his respiratory distress has resolved, but he complains of blurred vision.Which one of the following therapeutic agents is the most likely cause of this symptom?

      Your Answer: Nebulized ipratropium bromide

      Explanation:

      – Ipratropium bromide is an anticholinergic agent- Nebulized ipratropium can cause inadvertent ocular effects such as blurred vision and pupil inequality- Ipratropium has been shown to decrease the rate of hospital admissions in severe asthmatic attacks- Corticosteroids may elevate glucose levels in diabetic patients, but the onset would be more gradual- Adrenergic agents used for acute asthma do not commonly produce adverse ocular effects (level of evidence 3)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pulmonology
      57
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A patient presents to you with a complaint of diarrhea. He mentioned having...

    Correct

    • A patient presents to you with a complaint of diarrhea. He mentioned having eaten BBQ. On laboratory investigation, his blood count shows eosinophilia. Which of the following correctly describes the initial investigation to be done to reach the diagnosis in this condition?

      Your Answer: Stool for ova and parasites

      Explanation:

      Eosinophilia generally represents an allergic reaction or parasitic infection. Since in this case, the person has eaten BBQ, he might have suffered from a parasitic infection. Diagnosis of this condition involves stool study for ova and parasites.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hematology
      • Medicine
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 46-year-old male presents with a complaint of abdominal heaviness. He also mentioned...

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year-old male presents with a complaint of abdominal heaviness. He also mentioned uncomfortable awareness of breathing for three days. He also has a history of diabetes treated with metformin, Hepatitis B virus infection treated with lamivudine, TB treated with isoniazid, rifampin, and ethambutol. He mentions he has missed taking his medication sometimes. He also smokes 22 packs of cigarettes a year and drinks alcohol daily. His family history is unremarkable except for a father who had type II diabetes and died of a heart attack at the age of 66. On physical examination: Temperature is 37.2°CBlood Pressure is 135/75 mmHgRespiratory rate is 18 beats per minuteYou note shifting dullness to percussion. You think the patient most likely has ascites. The SAAG (serum-to-ascites albumin gradient) is tested and is found to be < 1.1.Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding this condition?

      Your Answer: The ascites is most likely caused by cirrhosis due to chronic hepatitis

      Correct Answer: His SAAG indicates that the cause of ascites is not associated with increased portal pressure

      Explanation:

      Ascites is the abnormal buildup of fluid in the abdomen. Technically, it is more than 25 ml of fluid in the peritoneal cavity, although volumes greater than one liter may occur. Symptoms may include increased abdominal size, increased weight, abdominal discomfort, and shortness of breath. Complications can include spontaneous bacterial peritonitis.The serum to ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) < 1.1 seen in this patient indicates non portal hypertension and suggests a peritoneal cause of ascites. Examples include tuberculosis, pancreatitis, nephrotic syndrome and various types of peritoneal cancer.- The ascites is most likely caused by cirrhosis due to chronic hepatitis is incorrect. We do not know how long the patient has had Hepatitis B. Also cirrhosis is most likely to cause an ascites with SAAG > 1.1, which is not the case in this patient.- This patient’s ascites is most likely due to alcoholic liver disease is incorrect. While excessive alcohol intake is the most common cause of liver cirrhosis in North America, the ascites that results is usually a transudate or SAAG > 1.1. This is not the likely cause of this patient’s condition given the SAAG value.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Internal Medicine
      • Medicine
      122.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 75-year-old female presents to the hospital.She complains of a three month history...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old female presents to the hospital.She complains of a three month history of constipation.She explains there have been changes in stool calibre, straining when trying to defecate, feelings of incomplete evacuation and use of digital maneuvers.She underwent a colonoscopy 8 years ago, which was normal.Her abdominal examination is unremarkable.Her rectal examination reveals stool with clay-like consistency, but no prolapse on straining and anal wink is present.Laboratory testing indicates a mild microcytic, hypochromic anemia.What would be the best next step?

      Your Answer: Trial of lactulose

      Correct Answer: Colonoscopy

      Explanation:

      The best next step is referral for colonoscopy as the patient is presenting with several red flags, including:1) Age > 502) Change in stool calibre3) Obstructive symptomsOther red flag symptoms which are indicative of a colonoscopy referral are:4) Heme – positive stools5) Iron deficiency anemia6) Rectal bleeding.It is vital to exclude malignancy prior to commencing treatment.Lifestyle modifications, Phosphosoda enemas, and Trial of lactulose are management strategies indicated after the elimination of the possibility of malignancy.Biofeedback training is used to manage pelvic floor dysfunction caused by loss of coordination of pelvic floor muscles whilst attempting an evacuation. It usually presents as prolonged or excessive straining, soft stools that are difficult to pass, and rectal discomfort.Key point: Red flags for colonoscopy referral (to exclude malignancy) include age >50, a change in stool calibre, obstructive symptoms, heme-positive stools, iron deficiency anemia, and rectal bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Internal Medicine
      • Medicine
      51
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 37-year-old caucasian male with a history of diabetes mellitus for the past...

    Incorrect

    • A 37-year-old caucasian male with a history of diabetes mellitus for the past 15 years presents to his family physician with the complaint of multiple episodes of hypoglycemia. His blood sugar levels have been well controlled within the physiologic range for years, and he does not report any changes in his diet or insulin dose.Which of the following best explains the episodes of hypoglycemia in this patient?

      Your Answer: Spontaneous improvement of beta-cell function

      Correct Answer: Renal disease

      Explanation:

      In a diabetic patient with well-controlled blood glucose levels, the most common cause of sudden onset hypoglycemia is diabetic renal disease, provided that diet and insulin regimen changes have been ruled out. Since the kidneys metabolize exogenous insulin, any impairment in kidney function would cause an increased half-life of insulin as it is not being cleared out of the bloodstream. Spontaneous improvement of beta-cell function: After chronic diabetes mellitus, 15 years, in this case, spontaneous improvement of beta-cell function would be highly unlikely.A reduction in physical activity: Any reduction in physical activity would cause impaired glucose uptake, leading to hyperglycemia rather than hypoglycemia.Insulin antibodies: Insulin antibodies would appear earlier in the disease course and not after 15 years of therapy. Additionally, the presence of antibodies would increase insulin requirements and cause hyperglycemia.Islet cell adenoma: While an islet cell adenoma can cause fasting hypoglycemia, it is uncommon, and it is more important to rule out more common causes first, such as renal disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      101.4
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 30-year-old female presents to the after-hours clinic with a complaint of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female presents to the after-hours clinic with a complaint of a small amount of vaginal bleeding. She informs you that she is eight weeks pregnant based on the date of her last menstrual period, which was confirmed by a blood test her family doctor has ordered. This is her first pregnancy. She states that several hours ago, she started to feel some mild cramping, followed by some spotting. She is wearing a pad, and the amount on it appears to be 1-2 tablespoons. There was no recent sexual activity.On physical examination, her vitals are within normal range. Her abdominal exam is unremarkable. On speculum examination, you see a bluish cervix with a closed external os. Bimanual examination reveals a nontender uterus with the appropriate size for gestational age. She is quite tearful and very anxious, so she inquires what else you can do. You try to get a fetal heart rate with a handheld Doppler, and you find a heartbeat at 160 bpm in her lower pelvis. The patient's pulse at the time is 80 bpm.What life-threatening condition should you rule out in this case?

      Your Answer: Placental abruption

      Correct Answer: Ectopic pregnancy

      Explanation:

      – Spontaneous abortion is defined as expulsion of an embryo or fetus weighing 500g or less, typically corresponding to a gestational age of 20-22 weeks or less- Risk factors include advanced maternal age, previous spontaneous abortions, smoking, cocaine use, NSAIDs use, high caffeine consumption, prolonged ovulation to implantation interval, prolonged time to achieving pregnancy, maternal weight (BMI less than 18.5 kg/m² or above 25 kg/m²), untreated celiac disease- Management depends on type of spontaneous abortion| watch and wait for threatened abortions, ectopic pregnancy should be ruled out with any vaginal bleeding in early pregnancy- DIC, molar pregnancies, placental abruption and thrombocytopenia are unlikely in this case

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • OBGYN
      • Obstetrics
      61
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 32-year-old man was brought to the ED by ambulance after having a...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man was brought to the ED by ambulance after having a tonic-clonic seizure. An EEG done a week later revealed epileptiform activity, and although this was his first seizure, the patient chose to start medication treatment as he wanted to return to his job (professional driver) as soon as possible. He was prescribed phenytoin 300 mg/day. Two weeks later, he had another seizure and was brought to the hospital.Your ordered serum phenytoin level and found it to be 8 µg/ml (therapeutic range 0-20 µg/ml). You increased the dose to 400 mg/day and planned to re-check serum phenytoin level later to see if the new dose could bring the serum level to the therapeutic range. You should do this at least:

      Your Answer: 5 days later

      Explanation:

      Seizures are sudden, abnormal electrical activity in the brain that can cause convulsions or go unnoticed. Between 5-10% of the population will experience at least one seizure, with the highest incidence occurring in early childhood and late adulthood. Causes of seizures can include sleep deprivation, metabolic abnormalities, infections, trauma, and drug or alcohol withdrawal. Epilepsy is not the same as a seizure, and requires two unprovoked seizures to be diagnosed. When a new drug is prescribed or its dose is changed, it takes at least five half-lives of the drug for its blood levels to reach a steady state.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      48.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 38-year-old male presents with symptoms of fever, weight loss, night sweats, and...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old male presents with symptoms of fever, weight loss, night sweats, and a productive cough with blood-tinged sputum for the past week. He had previously been treated for bacterial endocarditis three years ago and admits to using recreational drugs regularly. His temperature is 39°C, respiratory rate 21 bpm, heart rate 100 bpm, and blood pressure 110/65 mmHg. A positive PPD test was recorded three years ago and he was advised to take Isoniazid, but declined. Chest X-ray reveals consolidations and a cavity in the right upper lung, and Ziehl-Neelsen staining of sputum is positive for acid-fast bacilli.Treatment for his most likely diagnosis should be initiated. What would be the most suitable first-line regimen for this patient?

      Your Answer: Isoniazid, Rifampin, Pyrazinamide, Ethambutol

      Explanation:

      • Six-month regimen is used for patients with culture-positive TB, consisting of Isoniazid, Rifampin, Pyrazinamide, and Ethambutol. • All four agents are used for the initial 2 months, followed by Isoniazid and Rifampin for the continuation phase of 4 months. • Mechanism of action, possible adverse effects, and properties of the four drugs: Isoniazid (inhibits synthesis of the Mycobacterial cell wall, hepatotoxicity in fast acetylators, neuropathy in slow acetylators), Rifampin (inhibits DNA-dependent RNA polymerase, inhibits RNA synthesis, minor: nausea, jaundice), Pyrazinamide (inhibits mycolic acid synthesis, inactive at pH:7.4, active at acidic pH in phagosomes, hepatotoxicity, urate underexcretion), Ethambutol (inhibits arabinosyl transferase, visual disturbances from retrobulbar neuritis, urate underexcretion).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      78.5
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following is the next best step in the management of...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the next best step in the management of a patient presenting with 4-day history of painful vesicles on the left upper eyelid with associated headache?

      Your Answer: Referral to an ophthalmologist

      Explanation:

      Infection from the varicella-zoster virus (VZV) most commonly occurs in childhood and is spread by airborne, droplet, and contact transmission. Herpes zoster results from reactivation of the latent VZV within a sensory nerve ganglion, often presenting decades after the initial infection. The disease typically presents as a unilateral maculopapular or vesicular rash in a single dermatomal distribution. Herpes zoster ophthalmicus (HZO) is defined as the viral involvement of the ophthalmic division (V1) of the trigeminal cranial nerve (V).While the diagnosis of HZO does not necessarily imply eye involvement, ocular disease occurs in about 50% of HZO cases. Ocular manifestations can include conjunctivitis, uveitis, episcleritis, keratitis, and retinitis. The condition is considered an ophthalmologic emergency due to the risk of vision loss if not quickly identified and treated early in the disease course, thus a consultation with an ophthalmologist is necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Ophthalmology
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 10-year-old child has been brought in by his mother with petechiae and...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old child has been brought in by his mother with petechiae and mucosal bleeding. Blood is immediately drawn and sent for testing. The initial results show a low platelet count. Other blood cell lines are within normal limits. A provisional diagnosis of idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is made. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this disease?

      Your Answer: Steroids

      Explanation:

      Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura is also called immune thrombocytopenia. It is defined as isolated thrombocytopenia (low platelet count, less than 100,000) in the presence of:- petechial rash- bruising or- bleedingThe child or adult is healthy otherwise. The treatment of ITP includes:1. restriction of activities posing a bleeding risk when platelet count < 30,000/microL2. avoid antiplatelet medications3. steroids such as prednisone are the first-line treatment for:-children with non-life-threatening mucosal bleeding and/or decreased health-related quality of life- adults with a platelet count of less than 30 x 10/L who are asymptomatic and have minor mucosal bleedingOther treatments used in ITP are:- splenectomy- IV immune globulin- thrombopoietin receptor agonist – Rituximab

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hematology
      • Pediatrics
      24.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 46-year-old man was brought to the A&E department with swelling of the...

    Correct

    • A 46-year-old man was brought to the A&E department with swelling of the legs and face, nausea and vomiting, palpitations and reduced urine output despite consuming his usual amount of fluid for the past 2 days. There was no fever, dysuria, hematuria and diarrhea. However, there is reduced oral intake because of the nausea and vomiting. He also complain of hiccups that has been present since the onset of symptoms. The last time he experienced vomiting was about a decade ago due to gastrointestinal illness however it was not as serious as this current episode. In addition, this is the first time he is experiencing swelling of his legs and face.He was diagnosed with diabetes mellitus type I 25 years ago, his current medication is subcutaneous insulin. Additionally, he has underlying hypertension which was diagnosed 4 years ago. He is taking enalapril 10mg daily for his blood pressure control. He has noticed that his insulin requirement is becoming less over the past few months, moreover he experiences low blood glucose more frequently too. However, there was no episodes of hypoglycemia which requires hospitalisation. His recent travel history include a humanitarian work to Haiti. While he was there he experienced an acute onset severe abdominal pain. An abdominal CT scan with contrast was done, however, there were no significant findings. He has just returned from Haiti last night.Physical examination reveals - Temperature: 36.7°C- Blood pressure:140/78 mmHg- Heart rate: regular, 100 bpm - Respiratory rate: 24 bpm- SpO2 of 89% on room airHe was awake during the consultation and examination, however, he appears to be ill and in distress. There was no abnormal breath smell and no pallor or jaundice were noted. Positive findings include puffy face, raised jugular venous pressure, bibasilar fine crackles, regular tachycardia with presence of S3, pedal edema and dull flank pain on palpation. There were no other findings. His initial laboratory workup results show:WBC: 6.4 x 10^9/LHb: 13.0 g/dLPLT: 124 x 10^9/LAST: 34 IU/LALT: 37 IU/LBUN: 36 mmol/LCreatinine: 629 µmol/LK: 8.9 mmol/LArterial blood pH: 7.32Prostate specific antigen: 2 µg/LWhich of the following options is most likely to be the diagnosis of this patient?

      Your Answer: Contrast-induced nephropathy

      Explanation:

      This patient is suffering from acute kidney injury. According to his history, the cause of it is most likely to be the intravenous contrast material which was used for his CT scan recently.He is at risk of developing acute kidney injury as he had a long-standing history of diabetes mellitus and hypertension which could have already resulted in renal impairment. This is supported by the decrease need for insulin as kidney is the organ that metabolizes and excrete insulin. With kidney impairment, there will be increase insulin in the circulation, thus increasing the risk of hypoglycaemia. Contrast media causes acute kidney injury via multiple mechanisms. Firstly, they have a direct cytotoxic effect on the renal proximal tubular cells. They produces reactive oxygen species that induce cellular damage. Lastly, contrast media increases renal vasoconstriction leading to reduced renal blood flow. These effects are more prominent in those with underlying kidney disease. – Although it is likely that he is having hyperkalemia-related arrhythmia, but it is not the cause of his acute renal failure.- Diabetic ketoacidosis is seen in patients with diabetes mellitus type 1 with poor insulin compliance. Features that go against the diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis include no altered level of consciousness, and normal breath smell. It also does not explain the cause of his acute kidney injury. – Acute kidney injury could be cause by prerenal, intrinsic and post-renal cause. This patient does not have risk factor for prerenal or postrenal cause of AKI as he is a previously healthy man in the middle-age group, with no history of heart diseases. Hence, acutely decompensated chronic heart failure and benign prostatic hyperplasia induced oliguria are unlikely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Internal Medicine
      • Medicine
      171.2
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 52-year old white female is on day 7 of her admission at...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year old white female is on day 7 of her admission at the hospital for treatment of atrial fibrillation.She complains of a 24 hour history of a painful skin lesion on her right breast.On history taking, she explains it started as a local sensation of tingling and burning with a redness and flushing of the skin, and has since progressed as a large hemorrhagic blister. She explains she has never had a similar skin lesion before. She denies any fever, chills or night sweats.She is currently being managed for atrial fibrillation using antiarrhythmic standard therapy, with heparin and warfarin.She has previous medical history of congestive heart failure secondary to valvular heart disease which was diagnosed a year ago.She is currently on medication which includes lisinopril, bisoprolol and indapamide.She has no smoking or alcohol history and no allergies.On taking her family history, she admits to 3 children, 2 of them living, aged 17 and 15 respectively, and one who died when he was 8 months old due to purpura fulminans.On physical examination, she has a parasternal lift on palpation, with S3 and S4 heard on auscultation. A large (11 cm by 6cm) area of peau d'orange surrounds an area of hemorrhagic bullae and a small area with full-blown necrotic eschar.Her vital sign measurements are:Temperature: 38°C Blood Pressure: 140/90 mm HgHeart Rate: 80 bpm Respiratory rate: 15 bpmOn ECG, P waves are absent with a variable/irregular QRS response.Further diagnostic tests are ordered.What is the most probable cause of this condition?

      Your Answer: Clostridium perfringens

      Correct Answer: Protein C deficiency

      Explanation:

      In this case, the patient has atrial fibrillation which is most likely as a result of her congestive heart failure. The management strategies for such patients includes antiarrhythmic treatment (such as digoxin and beta-blockers) and anticoagulants (such as heparin and warfarin) to reduce the risk of thrombosis and strokes. Warfarin use can have adverse side effects, including warfarin-induced skin necrosis, as described in this case, which usually occurs between the 3rd and 6th day of warfarin therapy. This often presents as localized paresthesias with an erythematous flush, which tend progresses to petechiae and hemorrhagic bullae, possibly leading to full-thickness necrosis, with pain usually experienced in affected areas. Warfarin-induced skin necrosis is an uncommon but known side effect of warfarin therapy. The cause is unknown, but it is hypothesised that it can be a result of direct toxic effect (toxic vasculitis) at the intersection of the precapillary and arterial capillary of the dermovascular loop. It can also be a result of thrombosis, a hypersensitivity and deficiencies in factor VII, protein C and protein S which cause the formation of paradoxical blood clots which block blood vessels and interrupt blood supply to the area supplied by the vessel in question. It is predominant in women, often affecting breasts, buttocks and thighs. Risk factors for developing warfarin-induced skin necrosis include protein C deficiency, lupus, protein S, factor V leiden and antithrombin III deficiency.The patient’s history notes that the patient had a child who died of purpura fulminans, which is a fatal condition associated with a genetic protein C deficiency, which is a contraindication for warfarin therapy, and the most likely cause of warfarin-induced skin necrosis as protein C acts as an innate anticoagulant, and warfarin works to decrease its normal concentration. Heparin should be the anticoagulant agent of choice for this patient. Heparin therapy also has adverse side effects related to long-term use. These include decreased aldosterone secretion, osteoporosis and alopecia.Triple receptor-negative, E-cadherin overexpression is often found in relation to inflammatory breast cancer.Antithrombin III deficiency can cause warfarin-induced skin necrosis, but given this patient’s family history includes the death of a child from purpura fulminans, making her diagnosis more likely to be genetic protein C deficiency.Clostridium perfringens is a common infectious agents related to the occurence of an acute necrotizing fasciitis.Hyperhomocysteinemia occurs in relation to a hypercoagulable state and an increased risk of thrombotic events. It is not a known cause of warfarin-induced skin necrosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Internal Medicine
      • Medicine
      182.8
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  • Question 20 - A 69-year-old female with type 2 diabetes develops a 2 x 1-cm ulcer...

    Incorrect

    • A 69-year-old female with type 2 diabetes develops a 2 x 1-cm ulcer on the plantar aspect of her right foot. The ulcer is very deep and there is surrounding cellulitis. A plain film is normal.Which one of the following would be the imaging study of choice to rule out osteomyelitis in this patient?

      Your Answer: A CT scan

      Correct Answer: An MRI scan

      Explanation:

      – Leukocyte scans are sensitive for diagnosing foot ulcers- MRI is now the imaging study of choice when osteomyelitis is suspected- MRI has a sensitivity and specificity of 90% or greater in diabetic patients

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      50.4
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A-25-year-old female was diagnosed with schizophrenia three months ago and treatment was initiated....

    Incorrect

    • A-25-year-old female was diagnosed with schizophrenia three months ago and treatment was initiated. She had previously been healthy with no significant medical illnesses. She is now concerned because of gaining 4.5kg (10 lb) since beginning the treatment. A comprehensive metabolic panel is normal, with the exception of a fasting blood glucose level of 8.7 mmol/L. Which among the following medications is mostly likely responsible to cause the findings?

      Your Answer: Aripiprazole

      Correct Answer: Olanzapine

      Explanation:

      In schizophrenia patients treated with antipsychotics, especially the second generation/ atypical antipsychotics such as clozapine and olanzapine are at an increased risk of type 2 diabetes. Potential metabolic consequences of using antipsychotics include weight gain, hyperglycemia and dyslipidemia. Due to these metabolic disturbances, the risk of comorbid hypertension and heart disease are increased.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Psychiatry
      43.2
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 5-month-old baby starts to have a cough and wheeze. There is no...

    Correct

    • A 5-month-old baby starts to have a cough and wheeze. There is no previous history of respiratory problems, but he has had upper respiratory symptoms for the past 2 days. Physical examination reveals tachypnea, mild intercostal retractions and a bilateral wheeze.Which of these is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: bronchiolitis

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is acute bronchiolitis, which is a viral illness that is most frequently caused by the respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). The peak incidence occurs at 6 months of age. The illness causes a few days of mild upper respiratory symptoms, then increased coughing and wheezing. Examination usually reveals tachypnea and often there is intercostal retractions, seem by the use of the accessory muscles of respiration. Acute asthma is uncommon in the first year of life, and is difficult to diagnose without recurrent episodes or prior respiratory problems. With croup, the presenting complaint is usually stridor. Pertussis and pneumonia do not usually present with wheezing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pediatrics
      • Pulmonology
      48.7
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 40-year-old male presents to a walk-in clinic. He complains of right shoulder...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old male presents to a walk-in clinic. He complains of right shoulder pain that is acute and burning. It can occur at rest or with activity, and is sometimes so severe that it wakes him up at night. The pain is located on the outer upper arm and shoulder anteriorly, and began ten days ago after he was moving and doing frequent overhead lifting. His past medical history is unremarkable.You are suspecting subacromial bursitis but are also questioning whether there is possibly rotator cuff pathology. You would like to order diagnostic testing to reach the diagnosis.Which statement below is true about diagnostic testing?

      Your Answer: An impingement test will definitely diagnose subacromial bursitis.

      Correct Answer: X-rays may point to other pathology causing bursitis.

      Explanation:

      MRI is the best way to evaluate SB, but it may also show distention of the fluid-filled sac which is not specific for SB. An impingement test may be positive with SB and/or rotator cuff pathology. In cases where clinicians find it difficult to differentiate between the differential diagnoses of shoulder pain based on history and clinical examination alone, further diagnostic testing should be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Orthopedics
      80.7
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 14-year-old female present to the emergency department.On history taking, She admits to...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old female present to the emergency department.On history taking, She admits to falling on her outstretched right hand while rollerblading.On diagnostic imagery, her X-rays help confirm the diagnosis of a closed Colles fracture.What is the proper method of reduction for her wrist fracture?

      Your Answer: Traction with extension, ulnar deviation, pronation, and flexion of distal fragment

      Explanation:

      A Colles’ fracture refers to a complete extra-articular fracture of the distal portion of the radius bone in the forearm, resulting in the dorsal and radial displacement of the fragment of the distal radius. It is a common fracture that most commonly occurs as a result of a fall on an outstretched hand (FOOSH) while the forearm is pronated in dorsiflexion.The appropriate management of a Colles’ fracture includes orthopedic intervention and a rehabilitation program to preserve hand, wrist and elbow functions.The appropriate reduction technique for this case is a closed reduction with a cast applied below the dorsal elbow to immobilize the wrist in 20° palmar flexion and in 20° ulnar deviation for 6 weeks.A closed reduction is performed by producing traction with extension to exaggerate the injury, then traction using ulnar deviation, pronation and flexion of distal fragment.Slight extension, full pronation, and full ulnar deviation is wrong as ulnar deviation should be performed after the initial extension, and then the pronation and flexion of distal fragment.Slight flexion, full supination, and full radial deviation is wrong as the first step should be an extension, and the final step an ulnar deviation.Slight extension, full supination, and full ulnar deviation is wrong as supination is not included of the closed reduction of a Colles’ fracture injury.Slight extension, full pronation, and full radial deviation is wrong as it should be an ulnar deviation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopedics
      • Surgery
      21.6
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 29-year-old woman who has a 4 year history of ulcerative colitis is...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman who has a 4 year history of ulcerative colitis is admitted to the hospital due to increasing abdominal pain, diarrhea and hematochezia. Her disease is limited to the descending colon. Current therapy includes sulfasalazine and corticosteroid enemas. While she is receiving parenteral corticosteroid therapy, it is discovered that she is 8 weeks pregnant. The most important point to emphasize when discussing this pregnancy with her is:

      Your Answer: Occurrence of spontaneous abortions correlates with disease activity

      Correct Answer: Sulfasalazine and corticosteroids are not known to be teratogenic

      Explanation:

      Research has shown that pregnancy does not worsen ulcerative colitis and that the medications sulfasalazine and corticosteroids do not have any negative effects on the mother or fetus. Additionally, the risk of miscarriage, stillbirth, and congenital abnormality for women with ulcerative colitis in remission is the same as that for healthy women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • OBGYN
      • Obstetrics
      43.6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - You wished to determine the relationship between an ear infection in young children...

    Correct

    • You wished to determine the relationship between an ear infection in young children and parental history of the same infection. From the records of your clinic, you identified 120 children between one and three years of age who had experienced at least three ear infections in the past one year. You also selected 120 children of the same age group, treated for other illnesses in your clinic. You subsequently interviewed the parents of subjects in both groups to determine their history of the target illness as young children.What type of study did you use?

      Your Answer: Case-control study

      Explanation:

      Case-control studies begin with the outcomes and do not follow people over time. Researchers choose people with a particular result (the cases) and interview the groups or check their records to ascertain what different experiences they had. They compare the odds of having an experience with the outcome to the odds of having an experience without the outcome. That is, a case-control study compares two groups of people: those with the disease or condition under study (cases) and a very similar group of people who do not have the disease or condition (controls). This best depicts the described scenario. Here, the children with the ear infections are the cases and the other group of children are the control group.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • PMCH
      • Research Methods
      52.3
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 21-year old primigravida complains of headache and is taken to the emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year old primigravida complains of headache and is taken to the emergency room. Her blood pressure is measured at 132/90 mmHg, and the fetal heart rate is 130 bpm. Laboratory tests are ordered and showed the following results:Hemoglobin: 10.5 g/dL (Normal: 12.0-16.0)Hematocrit: 31.0% (Normal: 36.0 - 46.0)WBC: 15,000/mm3 (N: 4,000 - 10,000)Platelets: 120,000/mm3 (Normal: 150,000 - 400,000)Creatinine: 0.5 mg/dL (Normal: 0.8-1.3)ALT: 61 U/L (Normal: 0-65)AST: 30 U/L (Normal: 0-37)LDH: 250 U/L (Normal: 100 - 190)Bilirubin: 1.7 mg/dL (Normal: 0-1.0)Urine dipstick: 2+ proteinOther tests revealed the following:Non stress test: reactiveAmniotic fluid index: 9.0 (Normal: 8.0-20.0)Laboratory tests are repeated 24 hours after admission and showed the following:Hemoglobin: 8.2 g/dL (Normal: 12.0-16.0)Hematocrit: 30.0% (Normal: 36.0 - 46.0)WBC: 16,000/mm3 (N: 4,000 - 10,000)Platelets: 90,000/mm3 (Normal: 150,000 - 400,000)Creatinine: 0.6 mg/dL (Normal: 0.8-1.3)ALT: 96 U/L (Normal: 0-65)AST: 70 U/L (Normal: 0-37)LDH: 600 U/L (Normal: 100 - 190)Bilirubin: 2.5 mg/dL (Normal: 0-1.0)What is the next best step in the management of this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Immediate delivery by cesarean section

      Correct Answer: Induction of labor with oxytocin (Pitocin) if the cervix is favorable

      Explanation:

      The patient is suffering from HELLP (hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets) syndrome. If the cervix is favorable, labor induction with oxytocin is the appropriate management. However, in case of unfavorable cervix, cesarean delivery should be considered.HELLP syndrome has historically been classified as a complication or progression of severe preeclampsia. This progression, however, has been challenged with recent publications that suggest these pathologies have their own etiologies. Although there is still an overlap between preeclamptic pregnant women who develop HELLP syndrome, their association is not as straightforward as once thought to be. Genetic analysis of the heritability of predisposition for preeclampsia and/or HELLP syndrome in pregnancy has also been explored. Results show both genetic and immunological factors that play a role in pathogenesis.Given the lack of clinical trials for the management of HELLP syndrome based on the gestational age of presentation, many treatments are experimental in nature, and there has been a little significance in the improvement of perinatal outcomes between expectant management versus delivery before 34 weeks. That being said, the course of true HELLP syndrome has the potential to quickly turn life-threatening for both mother and fetus. Therefore the recommendation is always to hospitalize patients for strict monitoring of laboratory values. During hospitalization, patients should be treated as severely pre-eclamptic and should receive magnesium sulfate for seizure prophylaxis along with blood pressure control with hydralazine, labetalol, or nifedipine in usual recommended fashion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      • OBGYN
      119.5
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 63-year-old man is brought to the ED complaining of generalized crampy abdominal...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old man is brought to the ED complaining of generalized crampy abdominal pain that occurs in waves and vomiting intermittently over the last 6 hours. His BP is 150/75 mm Hg, HR is 90 beats per minute, temperature is 99.8°F, and his RR is 16 breaths per minute. On abdominal examination, he has a midline scar the length of his abdomen from surgery after a gunshot wound as a teenager. The abdomen is distended with hyperactive bowel sounds and mild tenderness without rebound. An abdominal plain film confirms your diagnosis. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Begin fluid resuscitation, bowel decompression with a nasogastric tube, and request a surgical consult.

      Explanation:

      The patient’s clinical picture is consistent with a small bowel obstruction. The distended bowel is unable to absorb fluid and electrolytes at a normal rate. thus, fluid resuscitation is important.Fluid loses can lead to hypovolemia and shock, compounded with vomiting. Nasogastric suction provides enteral decompression by removing accumulated gas and fluid proximal to the obstruction. A surgical consult is necessary as the patient might need to be sent to the OR to relieve the obstruction. An old surgical adage states “Never let the sun set or rise on a bowel obstruction.” Broad-spectrum antibiotics are appropriate when surgery is planned or when there is suspicion for vascular compromise or bowel perforation. Stool softener and enemas have no role in acute intestinal obstructions caused by mechanical causes. Adult SBO are diagnosed with an abdominal plain film, or CT scan, not by ultrasound.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      • Medicine
      44.8
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 23-year-old female presents with complaints of right eye proptosis and pain on...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old female presents with complaints of right eye proptosis and pain on movement and fever. The symptoms began two days ago and have since worsened. Her medical history is significant for a long history of allergic sinusitis in winter months and recurrent paranasal sinus infections for which she underwent surgery last week. She also has a history of asthma which she has been able to manage with diphenhydramine.Complete blood count reveals leukocytosis with WBC: 15 x 10^9/L, purulent material assessment, and culture on both aerobic and anaerobic media reveals Staphylococcus aureus and Bacteroides fragilis co-infection. A CT scan has been ordered and results are pending.What is the most likely cause of this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Sphenoid bone osteomyelitis

      Correct Answer: Ethmoid sinusitis

      Explanation:

      This patient’s most likely diagnosis is orbital cellulitis, a pediatric disease with a median age of 7 years. Symptoms include proptosis, pain on eye movement, decreased vision, conjunctival chemosis, and elevated intraocular pressure. Common causes are Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus pneumonia, Streptococcus pyogenes, Haemophilus influenzae, anaerobic infections, and fungal infections. Orbital cellulitis is an ocular emergency and is usually caused by an extension of an infection from the periorbital structures, with over two thirds of cases being a complication of ethmoid sinusitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Ophthalmology
      63.3
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 39-year-old female presents with complaints of abdominal pain, insomnia, and tremor. Tremor...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old female presents with complaints of abdominal pain, insomnia, and tremor. Tremor is noticed when she stands up. There is also a history of malaise of 7 weeks ago duration. Symptoms have gotten worse in the the last two weeks in spite of acetaminophen and sleeping pills patient has been taking. Patient has trouble falling asleep at night and abdominal pain is non-localized. She lives with her husband and child, and works at an energy company that manufactures batteries for electric vehicles.Physical examination reveals postural tremor when she stands. Deep tendon reflexes are globally reduced and wrist drop is also observed.What is the most likely result of this patient's peripheral blood smear?

      Your Answer: Rouleaux formation

      Correct Answer: Basophilic stippling

      Explanation:

      The clinical presentation of this patient suggests lead poisoning. While symptoms of lead poisoning are often non-specific, her symptoms, physical examination findings, and exposure to lead at her battery manufacturing factory all point to this diagnosis.Peripheral blood smear in lead poisoning shows basophilic stippling and ringed sideroblasts.Rouleaux formation is usually seen in patients with paraproteins or marked hypergammaglobulinemia. It is a pseudo-agglutination of red blood cells that produces regularly spaced clusters adhering side to side resembling coin stacks.Howell-Jolly bodies are seen in patients with functional hyposplenia or who had splenectomy. They are small, dense, perfectly round basophilic red cell inclusions, representing nuclear material from nuclear fragmentation.Target cells are seen in liver cirrhosis, thalassemia, HbC disease, and asplenia.Helmet cells or schistocytes are usually associated with ny type of hemolysis like disseminated intravascular coagulation, thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura, autoimmune hemolytic anemia, and traumatic hemolysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hematology
      • Medicine
      86.6
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Paediatrics (1/1) 100%
Pediatrics (3/4) 75%
Endocrinology (0/2) 0%
Medicine (9/19) 47%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Pulmonology (3/4) 75%
PMCH (1/2) 50%
Public Health (0/1) 0%
Internal Medicine (1/5) 20%
Hematology (2/3) 67%
OBGYN (0/3) 0%
Obstetrics (0/2) 0%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Infectious Diseases (1/2) 50%
Ophthalmology (1/2) 50%
Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Psychiatry (0/1) 0%
Orthopedics (1/2) 50%
Surgery (1/1) 100%
Research Methods (1/1) 100%
Gynaecology (0/1) 0%
Emergency Medicine (1/1) 100%
Passmed