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                                Question 1Correct - 
                                            A 20-year old female, currently on haloperidol shots for schizophrenia, is complaining of difficulty swallowing and moving her extremities. On examination, she appears to be anxious and diaphoretic. She has elevated BP at 165/98 mmHg, tachycardic at 118 bpm, tachypneic at 26 cpm and febrile at 38.7 C. Laboratory tests reveal leukocytosis at 20,000/mm3 and elevated creatine phosphokinase. The most probable diagnosis is:Your Answer: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome Explanation:Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is a life-threatening syndrome associated with the use of dopamine-receptor antagonist medications or with the rapid withdrawal of dopaminergic medications. NMS has been associated with virtually every neuroleptic agent but is more commonly reported with the typical antipsychotics like haloperidol and fluphenazine.Classic clinical characteristics include mental status changes, fever, muscle rigidity, and autonomic instability. While uncommon, NMS remains an important part of the differential diagnosis of fever and mental status changes because it requires early diagnosis and treatment to prevent significant mortality and death. Treatment involves immediately discontinuing the offending agent, aggressive supportive care to manage and prevent complications, and pharmacologic therapy in severe cases.The main risk factor for developing NMS is the initiation or increase in the dosage of neuroleptic medication. High-potency and long-aging neuromuscular depot forms carry the greatest risk. The concurrent use of multiple neuroleptic agents or lithium also increases the risk. Abrupt withdrawal of dopaminergic agents is a less common but important cause of NMS. Symptoms of NMS develop over one to three days and include distinctive clinical features: fever, muscle rigidity, mental status changes, and autonomic rigidity.The DSM-V criteria for diagnosing NMS are as follows:Major Criteria (all required):Exposure to dopamine-blocking agentSevere muscle rigidityFeverOther Criteria (at least two required):DiaphoresisDysphagiaTremorIncontinenceAltered level of consciousnessMutismTachycardiaElevated or labile blood pressureLeukocytosisElevated creatine phosphokinase 
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                                            This question is part of the following fields: - Psychiatry
 
 
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                                Question 2Correct - 
                                            You are called to the bedside of a 65-year-old female on mechanical ventilation for three days, who suddenly experiences chest discomfort. Her face is contorted in pain, and she points to her chest. She has a long history of smoking, with a 40-pack/year habit, and long-standing COPD.Vital signs show blood pressure of 85/55 mmHg, heart rate of 120 bpm, respiratory rate of 24 bpm, and oxygen saturation of 80% with a FiO2 of 40%. Physical exam reveals absent breath sounds over the left side of the chest and normal S1 and S2 heart sounds without any murmurs.What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?Your Answer: Insert a large-bore needle into the left 5th intercostal space Explanation:Pneumothorax is a condition in which air accumulates in the pleural space, causing the lung to collapse. It can be caused by trauma, medical procedures, or underlying lung pathology. Symptoms of pneumothorax include sudden onset of chest pain, decreased or absent breath sounds on one side, tachycardia, tachypnea, and hypotension. Immediate treatment is required, and the first step is the insertion of a large-gauge needle into the fifth intercostal space anterior to the midclavicular line of the affected side. This is known as needle thoracostomy. Following needle thoracostomy, a chest tube can be inserted, and a chest X-ray can be performed. Pericardiocentesis is not recommended in this case, as the patient does not have cardiac tamponade. 
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                                            This question is part of the following fields: - Medicine
- Pulmonology
 
 
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                                Question 3Correct - 
                                            Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder is associated with what other features?Your Answer: All of the above Explanation:ADHD commonly cause secondary problems in addition to its primary feature of inattention and hyperactivity. Risk of parental abuse increases as there is difficulty in disciplining the child which leads to frustration and disappointment. Peers rejection and social withdrawal is seen as children with ADHD has difficulty in communicating and getting along with others. Inattention, hyperactivity and impulsiveness increases risk of accidents. Children with ADHD might have normal adult functioning, as its outcome is variable. 
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                                            This question is part of the following fields: - Psychiatry
 
 
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                                Question 4Correct - 
                                            A 28-year-old healthy female comes to your clinic for a routine check-up. She is on oral contraceptive pills.A speculum examination is performed revealing a well-demarcated erosive, friable lesion about 1.4cm is size involving a portion of the cervix. Her previous cervical screening has been normal and there's is no other complaint of bleeding per vaginum or vaginal discharge.Which one of the following is the next appropriate step of management?Your Answer: A Pap test and a colposcopically directed biopsy Explanation:A biopsy is required to rule out cervical carcinoma when a red, elevated, friable lesion on the cervix is seen, and treatment for chronic cervicitis should not begin until the biopsy findings are known. If there is a clinically evident lesion, a Papanicolaou test alone is insufficient, as false-negatives occur in 10% to 50% of tests.A biopsy guided by a colposcopy is frequently diagnostic. If this is not the case, a cone biopsy is required. If the abnormal tissue cannot be detected with colposcopy but was discovered in cells taken from a cervical canal biopsy, or if the abnormal tissue identified with colposcopy reaches high into the cervical canal, a cone biopsy may be performed. 
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                                            This question is part of the following fields: - Gynaecology
- OBGYN
 
 
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                                Question 5Correct - 
                                            A 54-year-old man with diabetes and hypertension presents to the clinic with complaints of progressively increasing right upper quadrant pain for the past three days. It is associated with high-grade fever, chills and rigors, and a yellowish tinge to his skin. Physical examination is significant for a temperature of 100 F, pallor, jaundice, and right upper quadrant tenderness. The patient appears to be distressed because of pain. Murphy’s sign is negative. There is no visceromegaly or free fluid in the peritoneal cavity. An urgent abdominal ultrasound reveals gallbladder stones and choledocholithiasis. There is dilation of the common bile duct. His laboratory investigations are normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Acute ascending cholangitis Explanation:This patient has jaundice, right upper quadrant pain and tenderness, and fever. His symptoms are suggestive of acute ascending cholangitis due to choledocholithiasis and the symptom complex is known as the Charcot’s triad. If patients develop septic shock accompanied by altered sensorium and hypotension, the symptoms are referred to as Reynolds pentad. Charcot’s triad is most commonly seen in acute ascending cholangitis. Acute ascending cholangitis may occur when a gallstone blocks the common bile duct and cause obstruction. Biliary stasis promotes bacterial proliferation and causes infection associated with fever, chills and rigors, and jaundice. It may also lead to biliary pancreatitis and is a devastating complication of gallstones. Effective treatment includes removal or retrieval of the stone causing the obstruction and cholecystectomy should be performed before discharging the patient. Ultrasound abdomen, complete blood count, and liver function tests are helpful initial diagnostic investigations. ultrasonography showing gallstones and dilated common bile duct confirm the diagnosis of acute cholangitis. Findings in these patients include cholestatic jaundice with elevated alkaline phosphatase. Gallstone ileus is incorrect. It occurs when a gallstone obstructs the small intestine. It usually occurs at the level of the ileocecal valve. Acute cholecystitis is associated with obesity. Patients present with right upper quadrant pain radiating to the tip of the right shoulder. Pain is associated with vomiting, fever, and leukocytosis and occurs after having a fatty meal. Murphy’s sign is positive and is demonstrated by rebound abdominal tenderness on palpation of the right upper quadrant. This patient has a negative Murphy’s sign. Biliary pancreatitis or gallstone-induced acute pancreatitis is incorrect. Although it is a complication of cholelithiasis, it is associated with epigastric pain and elevated amylase and lipase. In the presence of normal amylase, it is unlikely. Cholestatic hepatitis is incorrect. Drug-induced cholestasis is characterized by elevated alkaline phosphatase and bilirubin levels and is caused by antibiotics like penicillin, azithromycin, and erythromycin. It occurs a few weeks (2-12 weeks) after initiating the offending drug and improves on drug withdrawal. Key point: Charcot’s triad (Jaundice, fever, and right upper quadrant abdominal pain) is pathognomonic of ascending acute cholangitis. It can be confirmed on ultrasonography, an ERCP, or magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography. 
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                                            This question is part of the following fields: - Gastroenterology
- Medicine
 
 
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                                Question 6Correct - 
                                            What are the potential drawbacks of the research method chosen to identify the source of the recent Listeria outbreaks in North America?Your Answer: Cannot determine the incidence of the disease Explanation:Case-Control studies are an ideal method for quickly determining the source of an outbreak. They compare cases (people with a particular outcome or disease) with controls (people from a similar group without the outcome or disease). Advantages of this method include its speed and cost-effectiveness, as well as its ability to be used for rare diseases. However, there are some disadvantages, such as the possibility of recall bias, confounding bias, selection bias, and difficulty in establishing temporality. Additionally, only one outcome can be measured and record keeping may be unreliable. 
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                                            This question is part of the following fields: - PMCH
- Research Methods
 
 
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                                Question 7Incorrect - 
                                            A 22-year-old basketball player visits you due to diffuse wrist pain and decreased range of motion. He states that he fell on his outstretched hand with his wrist fully extended during his basketball practice the day before.Physical examination does not reveal any visible deformity of the injured arm and hand. The point of maximal tenderness is on the dorsal aspect of the wrist between the extensor pollicis brevis and extensor pollicis longus tendons. Radiographs are negative for fractures.Which one of the following is the most suitable initial treatment of this patient?Your Answer: An ulnar gutter splint Correct Answer: A thumb spica splint Explanation:– Tenderness in the anatomic snuff box suggests possibility of scaphoid fracture- Negative radiographs should not lead away from diagnosis- Immobilization of wrist and thumb is necessary to reduce risk of complications- Volar wrist splint or thumb spica splint/cast should be worn until further imaging evaluation can be performed 
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                                            This question is part of the following fields: - Orthopedics
- Surgery
 
 
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                                Question 8Incorrect - 
                                            A day-old infant female undergoes a neonatal check-up.Her birth history indicates that she was born in hospital at the 38th week of gestation by vaginal delivery. Her APGAR score taken at 1 minute and 5 minutes was 7. She passed meconium and appears well.Her vital sign measurements are:Blood pressure: 80/45 mmHg in upper limbs, 55/35 in lower limbsPulse: 140 bpmRespiratory rate: 40 bpmTemperature: 36.8°COn cardiopulmonary examination, a continuous machine-like heart murmur, loudest in the pulmonary area, is heard on auscultation.Knowing the most probable diagnosis, what would be the most appropriate first step of therapy within the first week of life?Your Answer: Indomethacin Correct Answer: Alprostadil Explanation:The most probable diagnosis is coarctation of the aorta, suggested by a discrepancy in the blood pressure measured in the upper and lower limbs, as well as the continuous machine-like murmur (possible patent ductus arteriosus) heard on auscultation.Coarctation of the aorta (CoA) is a narrowing of the aorta that usually occurs in the thoracic area, distal to the point of origin of the left subclavian artery, but can also occur in the lower thoracic or abdominal aorta. CoA can occur in isolation or in relation to other lesions, most commonly bicuspid aortic valve and ventricular septal defect (VSD).Its description is usually in relation to the ductus arteriosus, which can be:Pre-ductal: Referring to a coarctation occuring proximal to the ductus arteriosus. It is most common in infantsJuxtaductal: Referring to a coarctation occuring at the point of the ductus arteriosus.Post-ductal: Referring to a coarctation occurring distal to the ductus arteriosus. It is most common in adults.The initial presentation in this case is normal due to the patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) which allows cardiac output to be uninterrupted by the coarctation. The condition will become symptomatic after its closure, causing her condition to deteriorate. The ductus arteriosus is able to stay patent in utero as a result of hypoxia, mild acidosis and placental prostaglandins. These disappear post-delivery, triggering its closure which will result in poor perfusion, metabolic acidosis, shock, dyspnea, diaphoresis, and congestive heart failure. Prostaglandin E1 (alprostadil) is the first line of management as it keeps the PDA open. This stabilizes their condition allowing a thorough assessment to be conducted so the appropriate clinical decision can be made. Once the neonate is stabilized, surgical repair can be conducted.Dobutamine is indicated in a child with coarctation of the aorta that presents as heart failure, so it is not appropriate here as the child is asymptomatic in presentation.Indomethacin can cause inhibition of prostaglandins, and is indicated in the closure of a PDA in children who do not require it for survival.Latanoprost is an analogue of prostaglandin (PGF2α) most commonly used for the treatment of an open-angle glaucoma. Methylprednisolone can cause inhibition of prostaglandins which would cause closure of the PDA.Key point: In children with coarctation of the aorta, the closure of the PDA will cause poor perfusion, metabolic acidosis, shock, dyspnea, diaphoresis, and congestive heart failure. Prostaglandin E1 is administered to keep the PDA open, in an attempt to stabilize the neonate’s condition for the surgical repair.. 
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                                            This question is part of the following fields: - Cardiology
- Pediatrics
 
 
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                                Question 9Incorrect - 
                                            A 24 year old male presents to the emergency department after taking an overdose of fluoxetine (Prozac). His symptoms include fever, tremor, diarrhea, shivering, and sweating. On examination the patient has a temperature of 38.3˚C (100.9˚F) is diaphoretic, and is hyperreflexic with inducible clonus.Which one of the following is recommended for treatment of this syndrome?Your Answer: Dantrolene Correct Answer: Cyproheptadine Explanation:Serotonin Syndrome is a condition caused by the overstimulation of serotonin receptors in the body, and can be caused by a variety of serotonergic agents, such as SSRIs. Symptoms range from mild to severe, and treatment should be adjusted accordingly. Mild cases can be managed with supportive care, discontinuation of the drug, and benzodiazepines. Moderately ill patients may benefit from a 5-HT2A antagonist such as cyproheptadine, and those with hyperthermia should receive all of these treatments, as well as immediate sedation, neuromuscular paralysis, and orotracheal intubation. Propranolol, a non-selective beta blocker, may be used to treat tachycardia, but can cause hypotension and shock in patients with autonomic instability. Bromocriptine and Dantrolene are not recommended treatments, and may even contribute to the development of the syndrome. 
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                                            This question is part of the following fields: - Internal Medicine
- Psychiatry
 
 
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                                Question 10Correct - 
                                            A 25-year-old female is at your department for pre-employment health examination. After taking the patient’s history, performing physical examination, reviewing immunization records, and ordering appropriate laboratory examination, the patient comments that you are cute and this is one of the reasons she likes being your patient. She says she has developed strong feelings for you and would like to spend weekends together when you are not busy.Which of the following is most appropriate to tell the patient?Your Answer: Inform her that you will not enter a romantic relationship because she is your patient Explanation:• Professional boundaries must be maintained in the physician-patient relationship.• Romantic or sexual relationships with patients are forbidden.• Sexual misconduct includes any sexual activity with a current or former patient, making sexual remarks or suggestive comments, discussing sexual problems of the physician, touching patients in a sexual way, and engaging in a sexual behaviour with another person in front of the patient.• Under no circumstances should the physician pursue a romantic relationship with a current or former patient. 
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                                            This question is part of the following fields: - Medico-legal
- PMCH
 
 
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